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11 November 2004 @ 03:30 am
How was I to know?  

I hadn't realized that the apparently common belief that Laws are for Other People has scriptural justification in the Christian Bible:

I agree that the Law is excellent—provided it is legitimately used, with the understanding that law is not intended for upright men but for the lawless and disorderly, the godless and irreligious, the irreverent and profane, men who kill their fathers or mothers, murderers, immoral people, men sexually perverted, kidnappers, liars, perjurers, or whatever else is contrary to sound teaching, as set forth in the glorious good news of the blessed God with which I have been entrusted (I Timothy 1:8-11).

Or is there some key fact I'm missing here?

Current Mood: surprisedsurprised
Current Music: The Grateful Dead Movie Soundtrack
Fred A Levy Haskell: eyes of the Fredcritterfredcritter on November 12th, 2004 08:36 am (UTC)
What Paul seems to be talking about here … is God's law, not secular law.

Yes, that's what I missed (see today's post on the matter). Thank you for pointing that out to me.

…it seems evident that he is pointing his missles at false prophets who were twisting Scripture to their own agendas.

Perhaps. Given history and the greater context I think it more likely that his missles were pointed directly at the Torah and the 613 mitzvot. More on this later, when I'm more awake.