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11 November 2004 @ 03:30 am
How was I to know?  

I hadn't realized that the apparently common belief that Laws are for Other People has scriptural justification in the Christian Bible:

I agree that the Law is excellent—provided it is legitimately used, with the understanding that law is not intended for upright men but for the lawless and disorderly, the godless and irreligious, the irreverent and profane, men who kill their fathers or mothers, murderers, immoral people, men sexually perverted, kidnappers, liars, perjurers, or whatever else is contrary to sound teaching, as set forth in the glorious good news of the blessed God with which I have been entrusted (I Timothy 1:8-11).

Or is there some key fact I'm missing here?

Current Mood: surprisedsurprised
Current Music: The Grateful Dead Movie Soundtrack
ask mevorona on November 11th, 2004 08:18 am (UTC)
So is he referring to Torah? I don't really understand Christianity's relation to Torah, or how that all works.
Fred A Levy Haskell: eyes of the Fredcritterfredcritter on November 12th, 2004 09:13 am (UTC)

Yes, he is (see today's post). I don't quite understand it yet either, although I'm working on it.* Judaism and Christianity: The Differences, by Trude Weiss-Rosmarin is proving helpful, especially the chapter entitled "Faith vs. Law." But I think I'll wait until I'm more awake before I try to pass on any insights, given what happened in this post…

*Heck, I was raised "relaxed" so I'm only just now learning about Judaism's relation to Torah. <wry grin>